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2820vn + 2820 (dual wan issue)
- danielgwalter
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31 Oct 2009 18:27 #7
by danielgwalter
Replied by danielgwalter on topic 2820vn + 2820 (dual wan issue)
now you put it like that it makes perfect sense!!!
thanks
Dan
thanks
Dan
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- danielgwalter
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01 Nov 2009 09:57 #8
by danielgwalter
Replied by danielgwalter on topic 2820vn + 2820 (dual wan issue)
ok, I still havenot got the working.
I got the router 2 into bridge mode ...
on router 1 wan 2 internet access setting:
page 1 (PPoE) I have set the ISP details and set the IP address section to the fixed internal IP address of router 2 (192.168.2.1)
do I need to make changes to the second page too (the static or dynamic ip address tab)
regards,
Dan
I got the router 2 into bridge mode ...
on router 1 wan 2 internet access setting:
page 1 (PPoE) I have set the ISP details and set the IP address section to the fixed internal IP address of router 2 (192.168.2.1)
do I need to make changes to the second page too (the static or dynamic ip address tab)
regards,
Dan
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- njh
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01 Nov 2009 10:11 #9
by njh
2900Gi/v2.5.6; 2900/v2.5.6
Replied by njh on topic 2820vn + 2820 (dual wan issue)
I have only been giving you general words of wisdom as I have never had ADSL so have never had to set it up.
As you have now got router 2 into bridge mode I guess we'll have to proceed with that type of set up. It would have been easier to get it up and running as a first off without bridge mode (i.e. with double-nat).
To me it is wrong to set the WAN2 IP of router 1 to 192.168.2.1. If your ISP uses a static IP you should use that. If not, it should be set to obtain its IP address automatically. By setting the IP address to 192.168.2.1 you now have 2 devices directly connected with the same IP address! That is a no-no. With router 2 in bridge mode, WAN2 router 1 should have a public IP address.
If you take router 2 out of bridge mode, you can assign WAN2 router 1 an IP address in the same subnet as router 2, but it must not be the same as router 2, .255 or .0. It would be easier to let it obtain its IP address automatically.
As you have now got router 2 into bridge mode I guess we'll have to proceed with that type of set up. It would have been easier to get it up and running as a first off without bridge mode (i.e. with double-nat).
To me it is wrong to set the WAN2 IP of router 1 to 192.168.2.1. If your ISP uses a static IP you should use that. If not, it should be set to obtain its IP address automatically. By setting the IP address to 192.168.2.1 you now have 2 devices directly connected with the same IP address! That is a no-no. With router 2 in bridge mode, WAN2 router 1 should have a public IP address.
If you take router 2 out of bridge mode, you can assign WAN2 router 1 an IP address in the same subnet as router 2, but it must not be the same as router 2, .255 or .0. It would be easier to let it obtain its IP address automatically.
2900Gi/v2.5.6; 2900/v2.5.6
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