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2830n Dual WANS - Force LAN client to use WAN1 only
- lectrician
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22 Oct 2012 13:04 #73900
by lectrician
2830n Dual WANS - Force LAN client to use WAN1 only was created by lectrician
Hi.
I have a Vigor 2830n setup with two WANs. The ADSL port of the router is connected directly to one ADSL connection, and the WAN2 ethernet port to the other ADSL connection via a Draytek modem. Both ADSL lines are independant and have differing dynamic IP's.
Everything works perfectly with one exception.
I have a single PDQ credit card machine connected to the LAN, and have given it a static IP through MAC/IP binding. This works fine, and the PDQ is able to access the internet and taker payments.
The issue I have is that the PDQ sometimes fails to connect, and I believe this may be because it sometimes goes out on one connection, and sometimes on the other, confusing the merchants computer system? This is the only reason I can think of.
Is it possible to force a certain IP address to use only one of the WAN's? I cannot work out how to? Using the bandwidth management perhaps?
I was tempted to change the ADSL modem on WAN2 to a small router, using one port to supply the 2830, and another port for the PDQ to see if this would cure the issue - Not an ideal solution, but at lease the PDQ would be forced to use the one ADSL line then.
Thanks for any input!
I have a Vigor 2830n setup with two WANs. The ADSL port of the router is connected directly to one ADSL connection, and the WAN2 ethernet port to the other ADSL connection via a Draytek modem. Both ADSL lines are independant and have differing dynamic IP's.
Everything works perfectly with one exception.
I have a single PDQ credit card machine connected to the LAN, and have given it a static IP through MAC/IP binding. This works fine, and the PDQ is able to access the internet and taker payments.
The issue I have is that the PDQ sometimes fails to connect, and I believe this may be because it sometimes goes out on one connection, and sometimes on the other, confusing the merchants computer system? This is the only reason I can think of.
Is it possible to force a certain IP address to use only one of the WAN's? I cannot work out how to? Using the bandwidth management perhaps?
I was tempted to change the ADSL modem on WAN2 to a small router, using one port to supply the 2830, and another port for the PDQ to see if this would cure the issue - Not an ideal solution, but at lease the PDQ would be forced to use the one ADSL line then.
Thanks for any input!
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- andrew_toole
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23 Oct 2012 22:20 #73915
by andrew_toole
Replied by andrew_toole on topic Re: 2830n Dual WANS - Force LAN client to use WAN1 only
This can ve done using WAN>>Load-Balance Policy
Set Protocol to ANY, set WAN to WAN1, set the SRC IP start and the SRC IP end to the address that you want to route over WAN1. You also have the option to enable/disable failover to the other WAN at failure.
Set Protocol to ANY, set WAN to WAN1, set the SRC IP start and the SRC IP end to the address that you want to route over WAN1. You also have the option to enable/disable failover to the other WAN at failure.
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- toff
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14 Oct 2013 14:01 #77970
by toff
Replied by toff on topic Re: 2830n Dual WANS - Force LAN client to use WAN1 only
Hi,
On the Vigor 2830n running firmware 3.6.4.1_sb_232201 - the "WAN>>Load-Balance Policy" doesn't appear to exist.
Is this possibly because I've disabled IPv6?
With regards to your issue (if you haven't solved it already) you could try using a Policy Route
http://www.forum.draytek.co.uk/viewtopic.php?f=14&t=18811&p=77969&hilit=2830+binding#p77969
Thanks in advance.
On the Vigor 2830n running firmware 3.6.4.1_sb_232201
Is this possibly because I've disabled IPv6?
With regards to your issue (if you haven't solved it already) you could try using a Policy Route
Thanks in advance.
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